Abstract
A family of sets is said to possess property if there exists a set such that and F ⊄ B for each In [1], P. Erdos and A. Hajnal ask the following question: Does there exist for every positive integer k a finite family of finite sets satisfying (i)|F|=k for each (ii)| F∩ G| ≤ 1 for each F, , F ≠ G (iii) does not possess property ?

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